ANTENNA AND RADIO PROPAGATION

1 What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

A Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
B Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
C A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible in any band
D All of these choices are correct.

2 What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

A It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

3 Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

A 28 days
B 1 to 2 hours
C 8 minutes
D 20 to 40 hours

4 What is the solar flux index?

A A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
C Another name for the Malaysian sunspot number
D A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimetres wavelength

5 What is a geomagnetic storm?

A A sudden drop in the solar flux index
B A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
C Ripples in the ionosphere
D A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere

6 At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A At the summer solstice
B Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D At any point in the solar cycle

7 Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

A Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C Improved ground-wave propagation
D Improved chances of UHF ducting

8 What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?

A High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D Microwave communications become unstable

9 What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?

A Long-term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B Cyclic variation in the Earth’s radiation belts
C The Sun’s rotation on its axis
D The position of the Moon in its orbit

10 Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

A 8 minutes
B 40 hours
C 28 days
D 11 years

11 What does the K-index indicate?

A The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B The short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field
C The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
D The solar radio flux at Ayer Kuning Taiping, Perak

12 What does the A-index indicate?

A The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B The amount of polarisation of the Sun's electric field
C The long-term stability of the Earth’s geomagnetic field
D The solar radio flux at Ayer Kuning Taiping, Perak

13 How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

A HF communications are improved
B HF communications are disturbed
C VHF/UHF ducting is improved
D VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

14 How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

A 28 days
B 14 days
C 4 to 8 minutes
D 20 to 40 hours

15 What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

A Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
B Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C Improved HF long path propagation
D Reduced long delayed echoes

16 How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

A Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
D A well-defined echo might be heard

17 Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

A Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
B Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band
C Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band
D Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band

18 Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

A Select a frequency just below the MUF
B Select a frequency just above the LUF
C Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
D Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

19 What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

A Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
B Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
C Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
D Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

20 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A They are bent back to the Earth
B They pass through the ionosphere
C They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

21 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

A They are bent back to the Earth
B They pass through the ionosphere
C They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

22 What does LUF stand for?

A The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D The Longest Universal Function during a 24-hour period

23 What does MUF stand for?

A The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
D The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

24 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A 180 miles
B 1,200 miles
C 2,500 miles
D 12,000 miles

25 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A 180 miles
B 1,200 miles
C 2,500 miles
D 12,000 miles

26 What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

A No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path
B HF communications over the path are enhanced
C Double hop propagation along the path occurs
D Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

27 What factor or factors affect the MUF?

A Path distance and location
B Time of day and season
C Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D All of these choices are correct

28 Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A The D layer
B The E layer
C The F1 layer
D The F2 layer

29 Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

A Where the Sun is overhead
B Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C Where the Sun is rising
D Where the Sun has just set

30 Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D All of these choices are correct

31 What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

A The long path azimuth of a distant station
B The short path azimuth of a distant station
C The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
D The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

32 Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter and 80-meter bands more difficult during the day?

A The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
D The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

33 What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A They have high intelligibility
B They have a wavering sound
C They have very large swings in signal strength
D All of these choices are correct

34 What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C The E-region is not present
D Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

35 Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D Propagations are through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

36 What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

A Faraday rotation
B Scatter
C Sporadic-E skip
D Short-path skip

37 Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scattering propagation?

A The communication is during a sunspot maximum
B The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
C The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
D The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

38 Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

A A vertical antenna
B A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
C A left-hand circularly polarised antenna
D A right-hand circularly polarised antenna

39 Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

A The F2 layer
B The F1 layer
C The E layer
D The D layer

40 What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?

A Propagation near the MUF
B Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
C Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
D Double hop propagation near the LUF

41 Which of the following factors determines the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

A The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
B The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line
C The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

42 What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

A 25 and 30 ohms
B 50 and 75 ohms
C 80 and 100 ohms
D 500 and 750 ohms

43 What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twin lead?

A 50 ohms
B 75 ohms
C 100 ohms
D 300 ohms

44 What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

A Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C Difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
D Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

45 How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

A Attenuation is independent of frequency
B Attenuation increases
C Attenuation decreases
D Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

46 In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

A Ohms per 1000 feet
B Decibels per 1000 feet
C Ohms per 100 feet
D Decibels per 100 feet

47 What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

A The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B The feed line trim to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
C The feed line must trim to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
D The antenna feed point impedance matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

48 If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feedline is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

A 1 to 1
B 5 to 1
C Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
D Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

49 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 200-ohm impedance?

A 4:1
B 1:4
C 2:1
D 1:2

50 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 10-ohm impedance?

A 2:1
B 50:1
C 1:5
D 5:1

51 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 50-ohm impedance?

A 2:1
B 1:1
C 50:50
D 0:0

52 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 25-ohm impedance?

A 2:1
B 2.5:1
C 1.25:1
D UN-determine SWR value

53 What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300-ohm feed point impedance?

A 1.5:1
B 3:1
C 6:1
D Un-determine SWR from impedance values

54 What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

A There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR
B If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss
C High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
D High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

55 What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

A The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
B The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
C The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
D Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

56 What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random wire HF antenna?

A It must be longer than one wavelength
B User experience RF burns when touching metal objects
C It produces only vertically polarised radiation
D It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on, the higher bands

57 Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground vertical plane antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

A Slope the radials upward
B Slope the radials downward
C Lengthen the radials
D Shorten the radials

58 What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

A It decreases
B It increases
C It stays the same
D It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees

59 What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?

A It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

60 How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

A If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire eliminated

61 The radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system should be placed:

A As high as possible above the ground
B Parallel to the antenna element
C On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
D At the centre of the antenna

62 How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

A It steadily increases
B It steadily decreases
C It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D It is unaffected by the height above ground

63 How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the centre toward the ends?

A It steadily increases
B It steadily decreases
C It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
D It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

64 Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarised as compared to a vertically polarised HF antenna?

A Lower ground reflection losses
B Lower feed point impedance
C Shorter Radials
D Lower radiation resistance

65 What is the approximate length of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A 8 feet
B 16 feet
C 24 feet
D 32 feet

66 What is the approximate length of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A 42 feet
B 84 feet
C 131 feet
D 263 feet

67 What is the approximate length of a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A 8 feet
B 11 feet
C 16 feet
D 21 feet

68 Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A Larger diameter elements
B Closer element spacing
C Loading coils in series with the element
D Tapered-diameter elements

69 What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A 1/4 wavelength
B 1/2 wavelength
C 3/4 wavelength
D 1 wavelength

70 Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

A The reflector is normally the shortest element
B The director is normally the shortest element
C The driven element is the longest element
D Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth

71 Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

A The reflector is normally the longest element
B The director is normally the longest element
C The reflector is normally the shortest element
D All of the elements must be the same length

72 How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

A Gain increases
B Beamwidth increases
C Front to back ratio decreases
D Front to side ratio decreases

73 What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements used as a reflector?

A The driven element must feed with a balun transformer
B There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
C The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
D The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

74 What does "front-to-back ratio" mean about a Yagi antenna?

A The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B The relative position of the driven element on the reflectors and directors
C The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

75 The elaboration of the main lobe referred as:

A The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

76 How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarised Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

A Approximately 1.5 dB higher
B Approximately 3 dB higher
C Approximately 6 dB higher
D Approximately 9 dB higher

77 Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimise forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

A The physical length of the boom
B The number of elements on the boom
C The spacing of each element along the boom
D All of these choices are correct

78 What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?

A To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms
B To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms
C To increase the front-to-back ratio
D To increase the main lobe gain

79 Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?

A It does not require that the elements insulated from the boom
B It does not require any inductors or capacitors
C It is useful for matching multiband antennas
D All of these choices are correct

80 Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

A 1/4 wavelength
B 1/2 wavelength
C 3/4 wavelength
D 1 wavelength

81 How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

A About 2/3 as much
B About the same
C About 1.5 times as much
D About twice as much

82 Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?

A Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
B Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
C Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
D Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength

83 How does the gain of a two-element delta loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

A 3 dB higher
B 3 dB lower
C 2.54 dB higher
D About the same

84 Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

A 1/4 wavelength
B 1/3 wavelength
C 1/2 wavelength
D 2/3 wavelength

85 What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?

A The polarisation of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
B The polarisation of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
C There is no change in polarisation
D The radiated signal becomes circularly polarised

86 How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

A dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower than dBd gain figures
B dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
C dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
D dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB

87 What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

A dBi refers to an isotropic antenna; dBd refers to a dipole antenna
B dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna; dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
C dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna; dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
D dBi refers to an isometric antenna; dBd refers to a discone antenna

88 What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

A Nearly Vertical Inductance System
B Non-Varying Indicated SWR
C Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
D Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave

89 Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

A Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometres
B High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometres
C High forward gain
D All of these choices are correct

90 At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

A As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible
B As close to one wavelength as possible
C Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

91 What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

A To permit multiband operation
B To notch spurious frequencies
C To provide balanced feed point impedance
D To prevent out of band operation

92 What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarised Yagi antennas?

A It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarisation
B It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarisation
C It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D It narrows the main lobe in elevation

93 Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

A Wide bandwidth
B Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
C Harmonic suppression
D Polarization diversity

94 Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

A Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
B Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

95 Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

A Its impedance is too low for effective matching
B It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
C It has poor directivity
D All of these choices are correct

96 Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

A Directional transmitting for low HF bands
B Directional receiving for low HF bands
C Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
D Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

97 Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

A A vertical antenna
B A broadband mobile antenna
C A helical antenna for space reception
D A very long and low directional receiving antenna

98 Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

A Present low impedance on all design frequencies
B Must equipped with an antenna tuner
C Must fed with open wire line
D They have poor harmonic rejection