1 |
What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies |
B | Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation |
C | A zero sunspot number indicate radio propagation is not possible in any band |
D | All of these choices are correct. |
2 |
What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
|
---|---|
A | It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies |
B | It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies |
C | It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications |
D | None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected |
3 |
Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
|
---|---|
A | 28 days |
B | 1 to 2 hours |
C | 8 minutes |
D | 20 to 40 hours |
4 |
What is the solar flux index?
|
---|---|
A | A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth |
B | A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions |
C | Another name for the Malaysian sunspot number |
D | A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimetres wavelength |
5 |
What is a geomagnetic storm?
|
---|---|
A | A sudden drop in the solar flux index |
B | A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation |
C | Ripples in the ionosphere |
D | A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere |
6 |
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
|
---|---|
A | At the summer solstice |
B | Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle |
C | Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle |
D | At any point in the solar cycle |
7 |
Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Improved high-latitude HF propagation |
B | Degraded high-latitude HF propagation |
C | Improved ground-wave propagation |
D | Improved chances of UHF ducting |
8 |
What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?
|
---|---|
A | High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted |
B | Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication |
C | Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced |
D | Microwave communications become unstable |
9 |
What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?
|
---|---|
A | Long-term oscillations in the upper atmosphere |
B | Cyclic variation in the Earth’s radiation belts |
C | The Sun’s rotation on its axis |
D | The position of the Moon in its orbit |
10 |
Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
|
---|---|
A | 8 minutes |
B | 40 hours |
C | 28 days |
D | 11 years |
11 |
What does the K-index indicate?
|
---|---|
A | The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun |
B | The short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field |
C | The stability of the Sun's magnetic field |
D | The solar radio flux at Ayer Kuning Taiping, Perak |
12 |
What does the A-index indicate?
|
---|---|
A | The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun |
B | The amount of polarisation of the Sun's electric field |
C | The long-term stability of the Earth’s geomagnetic field |
D | The solar radio flux at Ayer Kuning Taiping, Perak |
13 |
How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
|
---|---|
A | HF communications are improved |
B | HF communications are disturbed |
C | VHF/UHF ducting is improved |
D | VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed |
14 |
How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
|
---|---|
A | 28 days |
B | 14 days |
C | 4 to 8 minutes |
D | 20 to 40 hours |
15 |
What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
|
---|---|
A | Auroras that can reflect VHF signals |
B | Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions |
C | Improved HF long path propagation |
D | Reduced long delayed echoes |
16 |
How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds |
B | Signal strength increased by 3 dB |
C | The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation |
D | A well-defined echo might be heard |
17 |
Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
|
---|---|
A | Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band |
B | Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band |
C | Severe attenuation of signals on the 10-meter band |
D | Long delayed echoes on the 10-meter band |
18 |
Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
|
---|---|
A | Select a frequency just below the MUF |
B | Select a frequency just above the LUF |
C | Select a frequency just below the critical frequency |
D | Select a frequency just above the critical frequency |
19 |
What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
|
---|---|
A | Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use |
B | Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal |
C | Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe |
D | Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band |
20 |
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?
|
---|---|
A | They are bent back to the Earth |
B | They pass through the ionosphere |
C | They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere |
D | They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth |
21 |
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
|
---|---|
A | They are bent back to the Earth |
B | They pass through the ionosphere |
C | They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere |
D | They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth |
22 |
What does LUF stand for?
|
---|---|
A | The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points |
B | The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points |
C | The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period |
D | The Longest Universal Function during a 24-hour period |
23 |
What does MUF stand for?
|
---|---|
A | The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points |
B | The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points |
C | The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period |
D | The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period |
24 |
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
|
---|---|
A | 180 miles |
B | 1,200 miles |
C | 2,500 miles |
D | 12,000 miles |
25 |
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
|
---|---|
A | 180 miles |
B | 1,200 miles |
C | 2,500 miles |
D | 12,000 miles |
26 |
What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
|
---|---|
A | No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path |
B | HF communications over the path are enhanced |
C | Double hop propagation along the path occurs |
D | Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced |
27 |
What factor or factors affect the MUF?
|
---|---|
A | Path distance and location |
B | Time of day and season |
C | Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances |
D | All of these choices are correct |
28 |
Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?
|
---|---|
A | The D layer |
B | The E layer |
C | The F1 layer |
D | The F2 layer |
29 |
Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
|
---|---|
A | Where the Sun is overhead |
B | Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth |
C | Where the Sun is rising |
D | Where the Sun has just set |
30 |
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Because it is the densest ionospheric layer |
B | Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions |
C | Because it is the highest ionospheric region |
D | All of these choices are correct |
31 |
What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
|
---|---|
A | The long path azimuth of a distant station |
B | The short path azimuth of a distant station |
C | The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions |
D | The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions |
32 |
Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter and 80-meter bands more difficult during the day?
|
---|---|
A | The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours |
B | The F layer is unstable during daylight hours |
C | The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours |
D | The E layer is unstable during daylight hours |
33 |
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
|
---|---|
A | They have high intelligibility |
B | They have a wavering sound |
C | They have very large swings in signal strength |
D | All of these choices are correct |
34 |
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
|
---|---|
A | The ionospheric layer involved is unstable |
B | Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal |
C | The E-region is not present |
D | Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths |
35 |
Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
|
---|---|
A | Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone |
B | Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector |
C | Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy |
D | Propagations are through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy |
36 |
What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Faraday rotation |
B | Scatter |
C | Sporadic-E skip |
D | Short-path skip |
37 |
Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scattering propagation?
|
---|---|
A | The communication is during a sunspot maximum |
B | The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance |
C | The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency |
D | The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency |
38 |
Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
|
---|---|
A | A vertical antenna |
B | A horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground |
C | A left-hand circularly polarised antenna |
D | A right-hand circularly polarised antenna |
39 |
Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
|
---|---|
A | The F2 layer |
B | The F1 layer |
C | The E layer |
D | The D layer |
40 |
What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?
|
---|---|
A | Propagation near the MUF |
B | Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles |
C | Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset |
D | Double hop propagation near the LUF |
41 |
Which of the following factors determines the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
|
---|---|
A | The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors |
B | The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line |
C | The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal |
D | The frequency of the signal and the length of the line |
42 |
What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
|
---|---|
A | 25 and 30 ohms |
B | 50 and 75 ohms |
C | 80 and 100 ohms |
D | 500 and 750 ohms |
43 |
What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twin lead?
|
---|---|
A | 50 ohms |
B | 75 ohms |
C | 100 ohms |
D | 300 ohms |
44 |
What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency |
B | Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle |
C | Difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance |
D | Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line |
45 |
How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
|
---|---|
A | Attenuation is independent of frequency |
B | Attenuation increases |
C | Attenuation decreases |
D | Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz |
46 |
In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
|
---|---|
A | Ohms per 1000 feet |
B | Decibels per 1000 feet |
C | Ohms per 100 feet |
D | Decibels per 100 feet |
47 |
What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
|
---|---|
A | The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential |
B | The feed line trim to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths |
C | The feed line must trim to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths |
D | The antenna feed point impedance matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line |
48 |
If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feedline is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
|
---|---|
A | 1 to 1 |
B | 5 to 1 |
C | Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line |
D | Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter |
49 |
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 200-ohm impedance?
|
---|---|
A | 4:1 |
B | 1:4 |
C | 2:1 |
D | 1:2 |
50 |
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 10-ohm impedance?
|
---|---|
A | 2:1 |
B | 50:1 |
C | 1:5 |
D | 5:1 |
51 |
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 50-ohm impedance?
|
---|---|
A | 2:1 |
B | 1:1 |
C | 50:50 |
D | 0:0 |
52 |
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feedline to a non-reactive load having 25-ohm impedance?
|
---|---|
A | 2:1 |
B | 2.5:1 |
C | 1.25:1 |
D | UN-determine SWR value |
53 |
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50-ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300-ohm feed point impedance?
|
---|---|
A | 1.5:1 |
B | 3:1 |
C | 6:1 |
D | Un-determine SWR from impedance values |
54 |
What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
|
---|---|
A | There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWR |
B | If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the loss |
C | High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss |
D | High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss |
55 |
What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
|
---|---|
A | The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low |
B | The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high |
C | The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be |
D | Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement |
56 |
What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random wire HF antenna?
|
---|---|
A | It must be longer than one wavelength |
B | User experience RF burns when touching metal objects |
C | It produces only vertically polarised radiation |
D | It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on, the higher bands |
57 |
Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground vertical plane antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
|
---|---|
A | Slope the radials upward |
B | Slope the radials downward |
C | Lengthen the radials |
D | Shorten the radials |
58 |
What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials changed from horizontal to sloping downward?
|
---|---|
A | It decreases |
B | It increases |
C | It stays the same |
D | It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees |
59 |
What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?
|
---|---|
A | It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna |
B | It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna |
C | It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) |
D | It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side |
60 |
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
|
---|---|
A | If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable |
B | Antenna height has no effect on the pattern |
C | If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional |
D | If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire eliminated |
61 |
The radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system should be placed:
|
---|---|
A | As high as possible above the ground |
B | Parallel to the antenna element |
C | On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground |
D | At the centre of the antenna |
62 |
How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
|
---|---|
A | It steadily increases |
B | It steadily decreases |
C | It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground |
D | It is unaffected by the height above ground |
63 |
How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the centre toward the ends?
|
---|---|
A | It steadily increases |
B | It steadily decreases |
C | It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end |
D | It is unaffected by the location of the feed point |
64 |
Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarised as compared to a vertically polarised HF antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Lower ground reflection losses |
B | Lower feed point impedance |
C | Shorter Radials |
D | Lower radiation resistance |
65 |
What is the approximate length of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
|
---|---|
A | 8 feet |
B | 16 feet |
C | 24 feet |
D | 32 feet |
66 |
What is the approximate length of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
|
---|---|
A | 42 feet |
B | 84 feet |
C | 131 feet |
D | 263 feet |
67 |
What is the approximate length of a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
|
---|---|
A | 8 feet |
B | 11 feet |
C | 16 feet |
D | 21 feet |
68 |
Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Larger diameter elements |
B | Closer element spacing |
C | Loading coils in series with the element |
D | Tapered-diameter elements |
69 |
What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
|
---|---|
A | 1/4 wavelength |
B | 1/2 wavelength |
C | 3/4 wavelength |
D | 1 wavelength |
70 |
Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
|
---|---|
A | The reflector is normally the shortest element |
B | The director is normally the shortest element |
C | The driven element is the longest element |
D | Low feed point impedance increases bandwidth |
71 |
Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
|
---|---|
A | The reflector is normally the longest element |
B | The director is normally the longest element |
C | The reflector is normally the shortest element |
D | All of the elements must be the same length |
72 |
How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Gain increases |
B | Beamwidth increases |
C | Front to back ratio decreases |
D | Front to side ratio decreases |
73 |
What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements used as a reflector?
|
---|---|
A | The driven element must feed with a balun transformer |
B | There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point |
C | The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element |
D | The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element |
74 |
What does "front-to-back ratio" mean about a Yagi antenna?
|
---|---|
A | The number of directors versus the number of reflectors |
B | The relative position of the driven element on the reflectors and directors |
C | The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction |
D | The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain |
75 |
The elaboration of the main lobe referred as:
|
---|---|
A | The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation |
B | The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element |
C | The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element |
D | The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna |
76 |
How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarised Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
|
---|---|
A | Approximately 1.5 dB higher |
B | Approximately 3 dB higher |
C | Approximately 6 dB higher |
D | Approximately 9 dB higher |
77 |
Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimise forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?
|
---|---|
A | The physical length of the boom |
B | The number of elements on the boom |
C | The spacing of each element along the boom |
D | All of these choices are correct |
78 |
What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
|
---|---|
A | To match the relatively low feed point impedance to 50 ohms |
B | To match the relatively high feed point impedance to 50 ohms |
C | To increase the front-to-back ratio |
D | To increase the main lobe gain |
79 |
Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?
|
---|---|
A | It does not require that the elements insulated from the boom |
B | It does not require any inductors or capacitors |
C | It is useful for matching multiband antennas |
D | All of these choices are correct |
80 |
Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?
|
---|---|
A | 1/4 wavelength |
B | 1/2 wavelength |
C | 3/4 wavelength |
D | 1 wavelength |
81 |
How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
|
---|---|
A | About 2/3 as much |
B | About the same |
C | About 1.5 times as much |
D | About twice as much |
82 |
Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength |
B | Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength |
C | Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength |
D | Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength |
83 |
How does the gain of a two-element delta loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
|
---|---|
A | 3 dB higher |
B | 3 dB lower |
C | 2.54 dB higher |
D | About the same |
84 |
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
|
---|---|
A | 1/4 wavelength |
B | 1/3 wavelength |
C | 1/2 wavelength |
D | 2/3 wavelength |
85 |
What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?
|
---|---|
A | The polarisation of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical |
B | The polarisation of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal |
C | There is no change in polarisation |
D | The radiated signal becomes circularly polarised |
86 |
How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
|
---|---|
A | dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower than dBd gain figures |
B | dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures |
C | dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15 |
D | dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB |
87 |
What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?
|
---|---|
A | dBi refers to an isotropic antenna; dBd refers to a dipole antenna |
B | dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna; dBd refers to a dissipative antenna |
C | dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna; dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna |
D | dBi refers to an isometric antenna; dBd refers to a discone antenna |
88 |
What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?
|
---|---|
A | Nearly Vertical Inductance System |
B | Non-Varying Indicated SWR |
C | Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing |
D | Near Vertical Incidence sky-wave |
89 |
Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometres |
B | High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometres |
C | High forward gain |
D | All of these choices are correct |
90 |
At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
|
---|---|
A | As close to 1/2 wavelength as possible |
B | As close to one wavelength as possible |
C | Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength |
D | Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength |
91 |
What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
|
---|---|
A | To permit multiband operation |
B | To notch spurious frequencies |
C | To provide balanced feed point impedance |
D | To prevent out of band operation |
92 |
What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarised Yagi antennas?
|
---|---|
A | It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarisation |
B | It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarisation |
C | It narrows the main lobe in azimuth |
D | It narrows the main lobe in elevation |
93 |
Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Wide bandwidth |
B | Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna |
C | Harmonic suppression |
D | Polarization diversity |
94 |
Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Length and spacing of the elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other |
B | Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency |
C | Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency |
D | SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length |
95 |
Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
|
---|---|
A | Its impedance is too low for effective matching |
B | It has high losses compared to other types of antennas |
C | It has poor directivity |
D | All of these choices are correct |
96 |
Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
|
---|---|
A | Directional transmitting for low HF bands |
B | Directional receiving for low HF bands |
C | Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies |
D | Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies |
97 |
Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
|
---|---|
A | A vertical antenna |
B | A broadband mobile antenna |
C | A helical antenna for space reception |
D | A very long and low directional receiving antenna |
98 |
Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
|
---|---|
A | Present low impedance on all design frequencies |
B | Must equipped with an antenna tuner |
C | Must fed with open wire line |
D | They have poor harmonic rejection |