INTERFERENCE

1 What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

A To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

2 What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

A Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D Accidental out of band operation can be prevented

3 What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

A The radio is operating at half power
B The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

4 What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

A A pronounced peak
B A pronounced dip
C No change will be observed
D A slow, rhythmic oscillation

5 What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

A To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B To reduce harmonic radiation
C To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D To increase overall efficiency

6 What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

A Balanced modulator
B SWR Bridge
C Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D Q-Multiplier

7 What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

A Insufficient drive power
B Low input SWR
C Shorting the input signal to ground
D Excessive drive power

8 What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

A Minimum SWR on the antenna
B Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C Highest plate voltage while minimising grid current
D Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

9 Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

A To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

10 What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

A Automatic transmit/receive switching
B Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C VOX operation
D Computer interfaces for PSK and RTTY operation

11 Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

A To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
B To change frequency rapidly
C To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
D To tune in, stations that are slightly off frequency without changing transmitting frequency

12 Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?

A To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D To facilitate computer interface

13 What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

A To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D To slow down received CW signals for better copy

14 What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is not properly set when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

A ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D All of these choices are correct

15 Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

A The VOX circuit does not unkey the transmitter
B The transmitter signal is distorted
C Frequent connection timeouts
D All of these choices are correct

16 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A An ohmmeter
B A signal generator
C An ammeter
D An oscilloscope

17 Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A An oscilloscope applied less power consumption
B Complex impedances can be easily measured
C Input impedance is much lower
D Complex waveforms can be measured

18 Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A An oscilloscope
B A field strength meter
C A sidetone monitor
D A wavemeter

19 What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

A The local oscillator of the transmitter
B An external RF oscillator
C The transmitter balanced mixer output
D The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

20 Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

A It improves the frequency response
B It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C It improves the resolution of the readings
D It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

21 What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analogue voltmeter?

A Better for measuring computer circuits
B Better for RF measurements
C Better precision for most uses
D Faster response

22 What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

A Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C Two swept frequency tones
D Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

23 Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A A field strength meter
B An antenna noises bridge
C A multimeter
D A Q meter

24 Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A The radiation resistance of an antenna
B The radiation pattern of an antenna
C The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

25 Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

A Standing wave ratio
B Antenna front-to-back ratio
C RF interference
D Radio wave propagation

26 Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyser when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A Receiver
B Transmitter
C Antenna and feed line
D All of these choices are correct

27 What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyser?

A Permanent damage to the analyser may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C The analyser can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D Connecting the analyser to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

28 What is a use for an antenna analyser other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

A Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D Determining the gain of a directional antenna

29 What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analogue readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

A When testing logic circuits
B When high precision is desired
C When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D When adjusting tuned circuits

30 What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyse?

A Linearity
B Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C Percentage of frequency modulation
D Percentage of carrier phase shift

31 Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

A Bypass inductor
B Bypass capacitor
C Forward-biased diode
D Reverse-biased diode

32 Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

A Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
C Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

33 What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?

A A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B On-and-off humming or clicking
C Distorted speech
D Clearly audible speech

34 What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

A On-and-off humming or clicking
B A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C A chirpy CW signal
D Severely distorted audio

35 What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

A Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C The ground rod is resonant
D The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

36 What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

A Overheating of ground straps
B Corrosion of the ground rod
C High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D A ground loop

37 What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

A Connect all equipment grounds together
B Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

38 Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by the common-mode current on an audio cable?

A Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

39 How can a ground loop be avoided?

A Connect all ground conductors in series
B Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D Connect all ground conductors to a single point

40 What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

A You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

41 Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

A To provide adequate grounding
B To remove noise from received signals
C To increase antenna gain
D To increase antenna bandwidth

42 Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analogue filter?

A A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B Fewer digital components are required
C Mixing products are greatly reduced
D The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

43 Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?

A Bandpass tuning
B A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
C Balanced mixing
D A noise limiter

44 What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

A Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
C Prevent distortion of voice signals
D Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation

45 Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single-sideband phone signal?

A It increases peak power
B It increases average power
C It reduces harmonic distortion
D It reduces intermodulation distortion

46 Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A Distorted speech
B Splatter
C Excessive background pickup
D All of these choices are correct

47 What does an S meter measure?

A Conductance
B Impedance
C Received signal strength
D Transmitter power output

48 How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

A It is 10 times less powerful
B It is 20 times less powerful
C It is 20 times more powerful
D It is 100 times more powerful

49 Where is an S meter found?

A In a receiver
B In an SWR bridge
C In a transmitter
D In a conductance bridge

50 How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the strength meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A Approximately 1.5 times
B Approximately 2 times
C Approximately 4 times
D Approximately 8 times

51 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

A 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

52 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

A 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

53 How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

A At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D At least 1 kHz above the edge of the band

54 How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

A At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
D At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

55 What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

A To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B To allow automatic band changing
C To allow remote tuning
D To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

56 What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

A To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B To increase the "Q" of the antenna
C To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna

57 Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

A To the battery using heavy gauge wire
B To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
C To the battery using resistor wire
D To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

58 Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

A The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

59 Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 80-meter band?

A "Picket Fencing" signal variation
B The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C The antenna system
D MCMC rules limiting mobile output power on the 80-meter band

60 What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

A Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B Short antennas can only receive circularly polarised signals
C Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D Harmonic radiation may increase

61 Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

A The battery charging system
B The fuel delivery system
C The vehicle controls computer
D All of these choices are correct

62 What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A Photovoltaic conversion
B Photon emission
C Photosynthesis
D Photon decomposition

63 What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

A 0.02 VDC
B 0.5 VDC
C 0.2 VDC
D 1.38 VDC

64 What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

A The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
C The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

65 Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

A The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D All of these choices are correct